I couldn't help but notice that the expression for the magnetic component of the Lorentz force,
$$\mathbf F = q\,\mathbf v \times \mathbf B\,,$$
is very similar in its mathematical form to the Coriolis force,
$$\mathbf F = 2m\mathbf v \times \mathbf ω\,,$$
providing that we replace electric charge with mass, and angular velocity with the magnetic induction.
Even though I am aware of the physical differences between those two forces (Coriolis is a fictitious force, which acts on objects that are in motion relative to a rotating frame of reference, whereas the magnetic force is caused by a magnetic field), I do remember reading that magnetism is a "relativistic effect of electricity" (Feynman lectures), and wonder whether this analogy is pure coincidence or could obey to a deeper connection. Could it have something to do with Lorentz transformations?
On a more general level, could the magnetic force be viewed as "fictitious", and may this have some relation with the apparent non-existence of magnetic monopoles?
Edit:
I would like to point out that the analogy can be extended to the two other inertial forces, the centrifugal force and the Euler force, as is shown here and here.
My question could then be restated as:
Why is there an analogy between inertial and electromagnetic forces?
